Friday, 18 July 2014

Ramadan 2015: Some Questions and Answers on Fasting

Bismillah-hir Rahman-nir Raheem (in the Name of Allah, the Beneficent, the Merciful)
Here are some Questions and Answers on Fasting and Ramadan, collated from the excellent website by Shaikh Al-Munajjid, Islam QA. If you have any specific questions you want to ask, post a comment and I will try to find the Islamic ruling and answer, In Sha Allah.
EXEMPTION FROM FASTING
He works as a bus driver; is it permissible for him not to fast?
Q. Is it permissible for me not to fast in Ramadan because I work as a bus driver?
A. Praise be to Allah. Fasting Ramadan is obligatory for every Muslim who is an adult, of sound mind, not travelling and in good health. If he is sick or is travelling, it is permissible for him not to fast, because Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):“O you who believe! Observing As-Sawm (the fasting) is prescribed for you as it was prescribed for those before you, that you may become Al-Muttaqoon (the pious).(Observing Sawm (fasts)) for a fixed number of days, but if any of you is ill or on a journey, the same number (should be made up) from other days”[al-Baqarah 2:183-184].Based on that, if your work means that you have to travel in the bus to a place that is at the distance at which it becomes permissible to shorten the prayers, which is approximately eighty kilometers, then it is permissible for you not to fast whilst travelling, and you can make up the days when you did not fast after Ramadan is over, at times when it is easy to make them up, such as winter days.If your work is inside the city limits, then you must fast and it is haraam to break the fast, unless you experience severe hardship on some day, in which case you may break the fast (by eating or drinking) whatever will ward off that hardship, then refrain from eating and drinking for the rest of that day, and make it up later on. That is because of the general meaning of the evidence which indicates that it is obligatory to protect oneself from death, to relieve hardship and not to take on more than one is able to bear.
It says in Sharh Muntaha al-Iraadaat, 1/478: If a person’s work is (physically) hard and he will be harmed by not working, and he fears harm, he may break the fast and make it up later. That was stated by al-Aajurri. End quote.
In al-Mawsoo‘ah al-Fiqhiyyah (28/57) it says: The Hanafis say that in the case of the craftsman who needs to earn his living, such as a baker or harvester, If he knows that if he works at his craft it will cause him harm that makes it permissible for him to break the fast, it is haraam for him to break the fast before encountering hardship. End quote.
It says in Fataawa al-Lajnah ad-Daa’imah, 10/233: It is not permissible for one who is accountable to break the fast during the day in Ramadan just because he is working; but if he encounters severe hardship that forces him to break the fast during the day, then he may break the fast (by eating or drinking) whatever will ward off hardship, then he should refrain from eating and drinking until sunset and break the fast with the people, then make up that day on which he broke the fast. End quote.
If you know that you will not be able to combine fasting and work, then what you must do is look for another job, or take a leave of absence from work so that you will be able to perform this important pillar of Islam.
The Standing Committee for Issuing Fatwas was asked: What is the Islamic ruling on the case of workers who are doing physically hard work, especially during the summer months? I can give you the example of those who are working with smelting furnaces during the summer?
They replied:
It is well-known in Islam that fasting the month of Ramadan is obligatory for everyone who is accountable and it is one of the pillars of Islam. Everyone who is accountable must strive to fast this month in fulfilment of what Allah has enjoined upon him, in the hope of earning His reward and fearing His punishment, without forgetting his share of this world and without preferring worldly matters to the Hereafter. If fulfilling what Allah has enjoined upon him of acts of worship conflicts with his worldly work, he has to try to find room for both so that he will be able to do them both. In the case given as an example in the question, he should make the night the time for his worldly work. If that is not possible, then he may take a leave of absence from his work during the month of Ramadan, even if that is without pay. If that is not possible, he should look for another job in which he will be able to combine both duties and his worldly concerns will not affect his striving for the Hereafter. There are many kinds of work and ways of earning money; it is not limited just to this kind of difficult work. The Muslim will never be without ways of earning a permissible income whilst at the same time being able to do the acts of worship that Allah has enjoined upon him, by Allah’s leave.
“And whosoever fears Allah and keeps his duty to Him, He will make a way for him to get out (from every difficulty).
3. And He will provide him from (sources) he never could imagine. And whosoever puts his trust in Allah, then He will suffice him. Verily, Allah will accomplish his purpose. Indeed Allah has set a measure for all things”
[al-Talaaq 65:2-3].
If we assume that he cannot find any work other than what has been mentioned, which involves hardship, and he fears that he may be subjected to unfair laws or required to do things that prevent him from practising his religion and doing some of his religious duties, then let him flee for the sake of his religion from that land to another land where it will be easy for him to do what he needs to do for both his religious and worldly interests, and let him cooperate with the Muslims in righteousness and piety, for Allah’s earth is vast. Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):
“He who emigrates (from his home) in the Cause of Allah, will find on earth many dwelling places and plenty to live by”
[an-Nisa’ 4:100]
“Say (O Muhammad SAW): ‘O My slaves who believe (in the Oneness of Allah Islamic Monotheism), fear your Lord (Allah) and keep your duty to Him. Good is (the reward) for those who do good in this world, and Allah’s earth is spacious (so if you cannot worship Allah at a place, then go to another)! Only those who are patient shall receive their rewards in full, without reckoning’”
[az-Zumar 39:10].
If he is not able to do any of the above and he is compelled to do something like that which is mentioned in the question of difficult work, he should fast until he feels that it is beginning to get too hard, then he may eat and drink enough to prevent that hardship, then refrain from eating and drinking (for the rest of that day). And he has to make up that fast on days when it is easy for him to fast. End quote.
Fataawa al-Lajnah ad-Daa’imah, 10/234
And Allah knows best.
He is going to travel from one city to another and come back on the same day; can he break his fast?
Q. I’m going to go from amasterdam to paris and come back inshallah the same date , so can i eat in that date of the voyage ?
A. Praise be to Allaah. The traveller is one of those to whom Allaah has granted a concession allowing them to break the fast in Ramadaan. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):“So whoever of you sights (the crescent on the first night of) the month (of Ramadan i.e. is present at his home), he must observe Sawm (fasts) that month, and whoever is ill or on a journey, the same number [of days which one did not observe Sawm (fasts) must be made up] from other days. Allaah intends for you ease, and He does not want to make things difficult for you”[al-Baqarah 2:185]It makes no difference whether the journey is difficult or easy.The scholars differed concerning the definition of what makes a person a traveller and thus entitled to the concessions granted to travellers, one of which is that a fasting person may break his fast.The majority of scholars define it in terms of distance, which is approximately 80 kilometers.
Others – and this is the view favoured by Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah – are of the view that what counts is ‘urf (custom – what is customarily regarded as travel), and not the distance.
So whatever people customarily regard as being travel is travel, and comes under the rulings on travel in sharee’ah.
Undoubtedly travelling from Amsterdam to Paris is something that people would customarily regard as travel, even if one comes back the same day.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen said in al-Sharh al-Mumti’ (4/257) concerning a man who travelled a long distance in a short period: “A short period for a long distance, such as one who travels from al-Qaseem to Jeddah and back in one day – this is called travel, because people prepare themselves for it and they think that they are travelling.” End quote.
The distance between al-Qaseem and Jeddah is approximately 900 kilometers.
Based on this, if a person travels from Amsterdam to Paris and comes back the same day, he is travelling according to both scholarly opinions, whether we base it on the distance or on what is customarily regarded as travel.
Is it better for him to fast or not to fast?
The answer is:
It is better for him to fast unless he finds it difficult, in which case it is better for him not to fast.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
It is better for the traveller to fast, unless he finds it too difficult, in which case he may break his fast. The evidence that it is better for him to fast is as follows:
1 – This is what the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) did. Abu’l-Darda’ (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: We were with the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) on a hot day, such that one of us would lay his hand on his head because it was so hot, and there was no one among us who was fasting except the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Rawaahah. Narrated by Muslim.
2 – If he fasts it will be easier for him, because making up the fast may be more difficult – in most cases – than doing it at the proper time. That is because if he fasts in Ramadaan he is fasting at the same time as other people, and that will be easier for him. When Allaah enjoined fasting on His slaves, He said (interpretation of the meaning):
“ Allaah intends for you ease, and He does not want to make things difficult for you”
[al-Baqarah 2:185]
3 – If he fasts Ramadaan whilst travelling, he will discharge his duty more quickly, because no one knows what will happen to him after Ramadaan, so fasting will discharge his duty more quickly.
There is a fourth benefit, which is that if he fasts in Ramadaan he will have fasted at the best time, which is Ramadaan.
But if it is too difficult he should not fast when he is travelling, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) saw a crowd around a man who was shaded from the sun. He said: “What is this?” They said: “One who is fasting.” He said: “It is not righteousness to fast when travelling.” He said that to one who fasted whilst travelling although it was difficult for him. One day when the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) made a stop during a journey, those who were fasting fell down because they were exhausted, whilst those who were not fasting put up the tents and gave water to the travellers and animals. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Today the reward has gone only to those who are not fasting.” Narrated by Muslim.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 19/question no. 112
And Allaah knows best.
TARAWEEH
If a person misses ‘Isha’ prayer, can he pray Taraweeh with the imam, with the intention of praying ‘Isha’?
Q. If a person misses ‘Isha’ prayer, it may be noted in the month of Ramadan in particular – as you are well aware – that there are more than two jamaa‘ahs in the same place and at the same time. This is something that often happens at the time of ‘Isha’ and Taraweeh prayer. For example, when the first jamaa‘ah has finished ‘Isha’ prayer, another jamaa‘ah comes and they say the iqaamah (call immediately preceding the prayer) and they begin to pray ‘Isha’. During this time, the first jamaa‘ah get up and start to pray Taraweeh. Is it permissible to have two jamaa‘ahs at the same time and in the same place? What is your advice – may Allah preserve you and bless your work – to imams and those who come late to ‘Isha’ prayer? Is it permissible for me to pray with the imam having the intention of ‘Isha’ whilst he has the intention of Taraweeh?
A. Praise be to Allah. Firstly:The Muslim should hasten to do good deeds and compete with others in doing acts of worship, and this is emphasised even more during the month of Ramadan, in which the gates of Paradise are opened and the gates of Hell are closed, the devils are chained up and a caller calls out every night: O seeker of good, advance; O seeker of evil, go back.Our advice to the one who misses some of the prayers without any excuse, or misses them because of something haraam, such as those who neglect the prayer in order to watch soap operas, is that they should be keen to offer the prayers with the Muslims and they should hasten to pray when they hear the adhaan (call to prayer). Ramadan is a month of worship and multiple reward; we ask Allah to protect us from the evil of our own selves and to help us to obey and worship Him, for He is the Most Munificent, Most Generous.Secondly:If some people have missed ‘Isha’ prayer with the regular imam, should they pray ‘Isha’ in congregation (jamaa‘ah), or should they join the imam in Taraweeh prayer, with the intention of praying ‘Isha’? That depends on their situation:If they came in straight after the prayer, and there is enough time before Taraweeh to pray ‘Isha’, then in this case it is better for them to pray in jamaa‘ah on their own, so as to avoid differing with those scholars who do not allow a person to offer an obligatory prayer behind (an imam) who is offering a naafil prayer.
But if they came in whilst Taraweeh prayer was in progress, or the imam started to pray Taraweeh shortly after ‘Isha’, and there is the fear that if a second jamaa‘ah prays, the two groups will disturb one another, then in this case it is better to join the imam in Taraweeh, with the intention of praying ‘Isha’. Then when the imam says the tasleem after two rak‘ahs, they should stand up and complete the prayer by themselves.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked: We notice that in some mosques, those who come after the end of ‘Isha’ prayer and the beginning of Taraweeh offer a second [‘Isha’] prayer, but by doing so they disturb those who are praying Taraweeh. Is it better for them to offer the prayer in jamaa‘ah, or to join the imam in Taraweeh prayer, with the intention of ‘Isha’? Is the ruling different if it is one person or a group that comes in?
He replied: If those who come in are two or more, then it is better for them to offer the prayer on their own – i.e., ‘Isha’ prayer – then to join the people in Taraweeh. But if they join the imam with the intention of praying ‘Isha’, then when the imam says the tasleem, each of them gets up and completes the prayer by himself, there is nothing wrong with that, because it was proven from Mu‘aadh (may Allah be pleased with him) that he used to pray the obligatory prayer of ‘Isha’ with the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him), then he would go back to his people and lead them in offering that prayer; for him it was naafil but for them it was obligatory. But if only one person comes in, then it is better for him to join the imam with the intention of ‘Isha’, so that he will attain the virtue of praying in jamaa‘ah. Then when the imam says the tasleem following two rak‘ahs, he should complete ‘Isha’ by himself.
May Allah help us all to understand Islam properly.  End quote from Majmoo‘ Fataawa Ibn Baaz, 30/30. See also the answers to questions no. 378299380879136
And Allah knows best.
When does Taraaweeh prayer start in Ramadaan – on the first night or the second?
Q. When should we start to pray Taraaweeh prayer, on the night of the first day of Ramadaan (when the moon is sighted or the previous month is completed) or after ‘Isha’ prayer on the first day of Ramadaan?.
A. Praise be to Allaah. It is prescribed for the Muslim to perform Taraaweeh prayer after ‘Isha’ on the first night of Ramadaan, which is the night on which the new moon is sighted or the Muslims complete thirty days of Sha’baan.Similarly at the end of Ramadaan, Taraaweeh prayer should not be offered if it is proven that the month has ended, either by sighting of the new moon of Eid or if the month of thirty days has been completed.It is clear that Taraaweeh prayer is not connected to the fast during the day in Ramadaan, rather it is connected to the onset of the month at night in the beginning, and the last day of Ramadaan at the end.We should not say that Taraaweeh prayer is a naafil prayer and it is permissible to offer it on any night and in congregation, because taraaweeh prayer is limited to the month of Ramadaan, and those who offer this prayer are seeking the reward that comes for praying it. The ruling on offering this prayer in congregation is different from the ruling on offering other prayers in congregation. In Ramadaan it is permissible to pray taraaweeh in congregation on each night, whilst announcing it and encouraging others to join, unlike qiyaam at other times, where praying qiyaam in congregation is not part of the Sunnah unless it is done without having the intention beforehand, or it is done for the purpose of encouraging and teaching others.  So it is Sunnah to do it sometimes without committing to doing it all the time or persisting in that.Shaykh Muhammad al-Saalih al-‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:Taraaweeh at times other than Ramadaan is an innovation (bid’ah). For example, if the people wanted to gather to pray qiyaam in congregation in the mosque at times other than Ramadaan, this would be an innovation.
There is nothing wrong with a person praying in congregation in his house occasionally at times other than Ramadaan, because this is what the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) did. Once he led Ibn ‘Abbaas, and once Ibn Mas’ood and once Hudhayfah ibn al-Yamaan, in prayer in his house, but he did not adopt that as a regular Sunnah and he did not do that in the mosque.
Al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 4/60, 61
Based on this, whoever offers Taraaweeh prayers before it is proven that Ramadaan has begun is like one who offers a prayer at the wrong time. No reward will be written for him, even if he is free of the sin of doing that deliberately.
And Allaah knows best.
Is it permissible to shift one’s weight during Taraweeh?
Q. We pray Taraweeh; is it permissible for me to put most of my weight on one leg, then shift my weight onto the other leg, then onto both legs, so as to reduce tiredness?
A. Praise be to Allah.There is nothing wrong with the worshipper shifting his weight from one leg to the other sometimes, if he is standing for a long time in prayer, so as to give himself a rest. That is so long as he does not put one foot in front of the other, so that one foot is in line with the people and the other is in front of or behind it. This action is permissible for the one who has an excuse, but it is makrooh (disliked) if one does not have an excuse.An-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said:If a person puts his weight on one leg, his prayer is valid although it is makrooh; if he has an excuse, then it is not makrooh.Al-Majmoo‘, 3/230And he (may Allah have mercy on him) also said:
It should be noted that it is makrooh for one who is in good health to put his weight on one leg, but his prayer is still valid.
Rawdat at-Taalibeen, 1/234
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
With regard to shifting one’s weight from one leg to another, there is nothing wrong with it, especially when standing for a long time (in prayer), but it should be done without putting one foot in front of the other; rather the two feet should be in line with one another. And it should not be done too much. End quote.
Ash-Sharh al-Mumti‘, 3/224
And Allah knows best.
BREAKING YOUR FAST DURING THE FASTING HOURS
He broke the fast at home before travelling, then he had intercourse with his wife; what does he have to do?
Q. I was going to travel on a particular day, so I broke the fast in my house then I had intercourse with my wife. What do I have to do? Please note that I thought that the expiation was to make up that day only, I did not know that it is fasting for two consecutive months or feeding ten poor persons.
A. Praise be to Allah. Firstly:The evidence from the Qur’an and Sunnah, and scholarly consensus, indicates that the traveller may break the fast of Ramadan, then make up the number of days that he did not fast. Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning): “and whoever is ill or on a journey, the same number (of days which one did not observe Saum (fasts) must be made up) from other days” [al-Baqarah 2:185].If a person is in his home, then he decides to travel, he is not called a traveller until he has passed beyond the built-up area of his city. So it is not permissible for him to avail himself of the concessions of travel, such as not fasting and shortening the prayers, just because he has the intention of travelling. That is because Allah, may He be exalted, has only made breaking the fast permissible for the traveller, and he is not a traveller until he has passed beyond (the boundary) of his city.IbnQudaamah said in al-Mughni (4/347), after mentioning that the one who travels during the day may break the fast: … it is not permissible for him to break the fast until he has left the houses behind, i.e., he has passed beyond them and emerged from the built-up area. Al-Hasan said: He may break the fast in his house, if he wishes, on the day that he is going to depart. Something similar was narrated from ‘Ata. Ibn ‘Abd al-Barr said: The view of al-Hasan is an odd (shaadhdh) view; no one who is not travelling has no right, on the basis of either rational thinking or reports, to break the fast; and the opposite was also narrated from al-Hasan.Then Ibn Qudaamah said: (That is also) because Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning): “So whoever of you sights (the crescent on the first night of) the month (of Ramadan i.e. is present at his home), he must observe Sawm (fasts) that month” [al-Baqarah 2:185]. This one who is present at his home (and is not travelling) is not described as a traveller until he has left the city. So long as he is in the city, he comes under the heading of those who reside there (and are not travelling), hence he may not shorten the prayers. End quote.Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked about a man who decided to travel, and he broke his fast at home because he was unaware (of the ruling), then he set out. Does he have to offer expiation?
He replied: It is haraam for him to break the fast when he is in his house, but if he broke the fast before leaving his house, then he only has to make up the fast. End quote from Fataawa as-Siyaam, p. 133
Secondly:
The one who has intercourse during the day in Ramadan when he is fasting and not travelling has to offer a heavy expiation, which is to free a slave; if that is not possible then he has to fast for two consecutive months; if he is not able to do that, then he has to feed sixty poor persons. He also has to repent and make up that day.
His wife also has to do the same if she was willing. It makes no difference whether ejaculation occurred or not; if intercourse, i.e., penetration occurred, then expiation must be offered.
Thirdly:
The kind of ignorance for which one may be excused is ignorance of the ruling. If a person failed to do an obligatory duty and did not know that it is obligatory, or he did something forbidden and did not know that it is forbidden, this is the one who is ignorant and may be excused for his ignorance.
You may only be excused in your case if you did not know that this action of yours was haraam in the first place, or you thought that the one who has decided to travel can do that when he is still in his house.
But in the case of one who knew that this action is forbidden, and he did it but was unaware of the punishment that results from it, this is not regarded as an excuse, because in this case the person went ahead and committed the sin and transgressed the sacred limits knowingly.
Hence in the case of the Sahaabi who had intercourse with his wife during the day in Ramadan, the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) instructed him to offer expiation, and he did not let him off because of his ignorance of (the punishment), as was narrated by al-Bukhaari (1834) and Muslim (1111), because he had done it deliberately, knowing that it was forbidden. This was stated by al-Haafiz Ibn Hajar in al-Fath (4/207), based on the fact that he said “I am doomed” or “I am burnt”.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
If someone were to say: Wasn’t the man who came to the Messenger of Allah (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) ignorant?
The answer is: He was ignorant of what he was required to do (after breaking the fast); he was not ignorant of the fact that it was haraam. Hence he said “I am doomed.” If we say that ignorance is an excuse, we are not referring to ignorance of the consequences of this haraam action; rather what we are referring to is ignorance of whether this action is haraam or not. … Ignorance of the consequences of the haraam action is not an excuse; ignorance of whether the action is haraam or not is an excuse.
End quote from ash-Sharh al-Mumti‘, 6/417
To sum up:
You have to make up that day, and you have to offer expiation, so long as your breaking of the fast occurred when you had not yet begun your journey.
Our advice to you is to try to fast the two consecutive months on cold or moderate days when the day is shorter and there will be less difficulty involved, or during the days of annual leave from work and other times when you have the opportunity to do what is required of you. If you are genuinely unable to fast, then it is permissible for you in that case to feed sixty poor persons, giving them one meal, or giving several meals until you complete the number required.
Your wife also has to fast, and if she is not able to, she should feed sixty poor persons and not ten poor persons as mentioned in the question.
See also the answer to question no. 106532
And Allah knows best.
He travelled to a house of his in Madinah and had intercourse during the day in Ramadan without ejaculating
Q. I was on leave and I travelled to Makkah to do ‘Umrah, then I went to al-Madinah al-Munawwarah, where I had intercourse with my wife during the day in Ramadan, but there was no ejaculation. Do I have to do anything? If I have to do something, as far as I know it is, in order, to free a slave, which I cannot do because I do not have enough money; or to fast for two consecutive months, which I cannot do because of the circumstances of my work in the field, and with the summer heat it is too difficult for me to fast. Can I feed sixty poor persons, and does my wife have to do the same thing because she was willing? Please note that we have a house in al-Madinah al-Munawwarah and I am a resident of Riyadh; I go there when I am on leave.
A. Praise be to Allah.Whoever has intercourse in the day in Ramadan when he is fasting and is not travelling has to offer a severe expiation, which is to free a slave. If he cannot do that, then he has to fast for two consecutive months. If he is not able to do that, then he has to feed sixty poor persons. He also has to repent and make up that day. The same is required of the wife if she was willing. It makes no difference whether ejaculation occurred or not; if intercourse, i.e., penetration, occurred, then expiation must be offered.If they were travelling, then there is no sin and they do not have to offer expiation or refrain from eating and so on for the rest of the day. Rather they have to make up that day, because fasting was not obligatory for them.If you are a resident of Riyadh and you have a house in Madinah that you go to when you are on leave, then when you go to Madinah you come under the same ruling as those who reside there, and you have to fast and offer the prayers in full, and it is haraam for you to break the fast by having intercourse and so on, and you have to offer expiation for having intercourse.But if you went to Makkah, for example, then you do not come under the same ruling as those who reside there, unless you intended to stay there for more than four days. If you intended to stay there for less than that, then you come under the ruling on travelers.Shaykh Muhammad ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked: A man travelled from one city to another, and he owns a house in the city to which he travelled; should he offer the prayers in full or can he shorten them?
Shaykh: But is he a resident in that city? For example, does he stay for two or three months in one, then two or three months on the other, or what?
Questioner: He travels there during the summer vacation.
Shaykh: He goes there during the summer?
Questioner: Yes.
Shaykh: Then he should not shorten his prayers, because in fact he has two homes.
End quote from Liqa’ al-Baab al-Maftooh, 25/162
Based on that, if your breaking the fast happened before you entered Madinah, there is no sin on you for what you did, and all you have to do is make up that day, because you broke the fast because of travelling.
But if your breaking the fast happened after you had entered Madinah, then you have to offer expiation.
Our advice to you is to try to fast the two consecutive months on cold or moderate days when the day is shorter and there will be less difficulty involved, or during the days of annual leave from work and other times when you have the opportunity to do what is required of you. If you are genuinely unable to fast, then it is permissible for you in that case to feed sixty poor persons, giving them one meal, or giving several meals until you complete the number required.
See also the answer to question no. 106532
And Allah knows best.
Emission of maniy without desire does not invalidate the fast
Q. Maniy comes out of me every day during the month of Ramadan, which prevents me from fasting. Please note that this does not happen on ordinary days. Is this because of weakness of faith? Please note that I do not have any sickness. What should I do, especially since the blessed days of Ramadan go by without me fasting? Please note: I went for ‘Umrah a month ago and the same thing happened. I hope you can advise me.
A. Praise be to Allaah.It is not clear to us what you mean by saying “Maniy comes out of me every day during the month of Ramadan.”1.     If what is meant is that you have a wet dream and maniy is emitted as a result, that does not affect the fast, because it is not under a person’s control.2.     If what is meant is that maniy comes out whilst you are awake without you doing anything, rather it comes out by itself and you are certain that it is maniy, then in most cases this results from sickness. The majority of scholars – Hanafis, Maalikis and Hanbalis – are of the view that this does not necessitate ghusl, and this is the correct view. See the answer to question number 84409. The fast is not invalidated by the emission of this maniy, because it is involuntary and is beyond a person’s control.Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: If he masturbates with his hand, then he has done a haraam action, but he is fast is not invalidated by it unless he ejaculates. If he does ejaculate, then his fast is invalidated. But if he ejaculates without desire, such as a person from whom maniy or madhiy comes out because of sickness, there is no blame on him because it came out without desire, and is similar to urinary incontinence; and because it came out without him choosing that or causing it, so it is like a wet dream. End quote from al-Mughni (3/21).To sum up: if maniy comes out without any action on the part of the fasting person, whether by using his hand or by intimacy or repeated looking, then his fast is not invalidated. Usually when maniy comes out in this manner, it is due to sickness or disease.
3.     With regard to the one who masturbates or causes maniy to be emitted by his hand, or by repeatedly looking at that which provoked his desire, this does invalidate his fast, as well as being a major sin, because he has committed two haraam actions, the first of which is masturbation and the second is deliberately breaking the fast during the day in Ramadan. This is a grave major sin concerning which there is a warning as was narrated by Ibn Khuzaymah (1986) and Ibn Hibbaan (7491) from Abu Umaamah al-Baahili (may Allaah be pleased with him) who said: I heard the Messenger of Allaah (blessings and peace of Allaah be upon him) say: “Whilst I was sleeping, two men came to me and took hold of my upper arm, and brought me to a rugged mountain. They said: ‘Climb up.’ I said: ‘I cannot do it.’ They said: ‘We will make it easy for you.’ So I climbed up until I was at the top of the mountain. There I heard loud voices. I said: ‘What are these voices?’ They said: ‘This is the screaming of the people of Hell.’ Then I was taken and I saw people suspended by their ankles, with the corners of their mouths torn and pouring with blood. I said: ‘Who are these?’ They said: ‘These are the people who broke their fast before it was time to do so.’” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani inSaheeh Mawaarid al-Zam’aan, no. 1509.
4.     You may be confused about the matter so that you do not distinguish between maniy and madhiy/wadiy; both of the latter do not invalidate the fast.
This is how to distinguish between these things:
Madhiy is a thin, clear liquid which comes out during foreplay or when thinking of intercourse or desiring it or looking; a person may be unaware of it.
Wadiy is a thick white liquid which comes out in white drops, usually after urinating. Both of them are najis (impure) and invalidate wudoo’, but the najaasah (impurity) of madhiy is less serious and it is sufficient to sprinkle water on it, which means making water reach the entire area that it got onto, without squeezing or rubbing.
Ghusl is not required in these two cases and the fast is not invalidated by them.
As for maniy, it is a white liquid that is emitted with forceful gushing, followed by lassitude. When it is wet it smells like dough or the spadix of a palm tree, and when it is dry it smells like egg whites. It is taahir (pure) but it necessitates ghusl, except if it is emitted whilst awake without desire, as stated above, in which case it does not require ghusl.
With regard to that happening to you when you were travelling for ‘umrah, if that occurred during a wet dream whilst you were sleeping, then you have to do ghusl and it is not permissible for one who is junub to enter al-Masjid al-Haraam or to circumambulate the Ka’bah. If that happened during the day without desire, then you only have to do wudoo’.
We hope we have answered your question. If there is still anything that you don’t understand, then ask again and we will be happy to help you.
And Allaah knows best.
TAKING MEDICATION DURING FASTING HOURS
Ruling on using medicinal gel through the nose when fasting
Q. I suffer from an allergy in the nose. I have read the questions having to do with taking medication in the form of a nasal spray whilst fasting, and you stated that it does not invalidate the fast. But my question has to do with another kind of medicine, which is in the form of a gel that is taken through the nose. Does taking it invalidate the fast?
A. Praise be to Allah. The Prophet’s Sunnah indicates that the nose may lead to the stomach. The Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “Exaggerate in rinsing the nose (when doing wudoo’) unless you are fasting.” Narrated by Abu Dawood, 142; at-Tirmidhi, 788. Classed as saheeh by Shaykh al-Albaani in Saheeh Sunan Abi Dawood.If the gel that is taken through the nose does not reach the throat or stomach, rather it is absorbed through the nose, then the fast is valid.Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said:There is nothing wrong with using creams that moisten the lips and nose, or dampening it with water or with a wet cloth and the like, but you should take care not to let any of that moisture reach the throat or stomach. If anything does reach it without you intending it to, then you do not have to do anything, such as if you wash inside your mouth and the water reaches the throat without you intending it to. That does not break the fast.End quote from Majmoo‘ Fataawa Ibn ‘Uthaymeen, 19/224We ask Allah to heals you and all the sick Muslims, and grant you well-being.
And Allah knows best.
Fasting person having an injection
Q. What is the ruling on taking medication by injection during the day in Ramadan, whether it is for nourishment or for medical purposes?
A. Praise be to Allaah.It is permissible for a fasting person to take medicine by injection, whether intramuscular or intravenous, during the day in Ramadaan, but it is not permissible for the fasting person to be given an injection for nourishment purposes during the day in Ramadaan, because that comes under the ruling on eating and drinking; having this injection is regarded as a trick aimed at breaking one’s fast in Ramadaan. If the intramuscular or intravenous injection can be given at night, that is better.And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions.Standing Committee for Academic Research and Issuing Fatwas, 10/252
Ruling on nose drops for one who is fasting
Q. What is the ruling on using nose drops during the day in Ramadaan?.
A. Praise be to Allaah.It is proven that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Snuff water up into the nose deeply, unless you are fasting.” Narrated by al-Tirmidhi (788) and classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Irwa’al-Ghaleel (935).This hadeeth indicates that it is not permissible for the fasting person to let water reach his throat via the nose.Based on that, if the nose drops are small in amount such that they will not reach the throat, then there is nothing wrong with that, but if they do reach the throat and can be tasted, then the fast is invalidated and has to be made up.Shaykh Ibn Baaz said:  The same applies to eye drops and ear drops. They do not break the fast according to the more correct of the two scholarly opinions, but if he finds the taste of the drops in his throat, he should make up the fast in order to be on the safe side, but it is not obligatory, because these are not openings through which food and drink enter the body. But nose drops are not permissible, because the nose is an opening through which food and drink may enter the body. Hence the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Snuff water up into the nose deeply, unless you are fasting.” The one who does that has to make up the fast because of this hadeeth and similar reports, if he finds the taste of that in his throat. End quote.Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen said in Fataawa Ramadaan (p. 511): If nose drops reach the stomach or the throat, then they break the fast, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said, according to the hadeeth of Laqeet ibn Sabrah: “Snuff water up into the nose deeply, unless you are fasting.” So it is not permissible for the fasting person to put drops in his nose that can reach his stomach or his throat, but as for nose drops that will not reach them, they do not break the fast.
With regard to eye drops – and also using kohl – and ear drops, they do not break the fast of the fasting person. End quote.
Based on this, the fasting person should not use nose drops unless it is too difficult for him to go without them, in which case he should use them but he should be careful not to let any of that reach his throat. If he swallows any of that he should make up that day.
If he knows that he cannot help swallowing some of them, then it is not permissible for him to use them unless his sickness is so bad that it is permissible for him not to fast, which is if fasting will cause him harm or unbearable hardship. See also questions no. 50555 and 38532.
And Allaah knows best.
WOMEN AND FASTING
Her period lasts all month because of a weakness in her reproductive glands
Q. There is a woman in my family who has her period all month because she suffers from a weakness in her reproductive glands. Now she is undergoing treatment but that happens to have coincided with Ramadaan. She is wondering what she should do –should she fast?.
A. Praise be to Allaah.If the bleeding lasts all month then she is experiencing istihaadah (irregular non-menstrual vaginal bleeding) and she should refer to her regular cycle if she used to have a regular cycle before that, and stop praying etc during the time that was her regular period, then she should do ghusl and pray and fast for the rest of the month even if she is still bleeding. If she did not have a regular cycle or she has forgotten it, then she should distinguish the types of blood if she can. Menstrual blood (hayd) and non-menstrual blood (istihaadah) may be distinguished by colour, smell and thickness; menstrual blood is black or dark, and has an unpleasant smell, and it is thick, unlike the blood ofistihaadah.The days on which the blood has the characteristics of menstrual blood are menses, and on the other days she is regarded as “pure”, so she should pray and fast.If she cannot distinguish different types of blood, then she should stop praying etc for six or seven days, because that is the usual length of menses for women, then she should do ghusl and pray and fast.Among the reports of the Sunnah which speak of istihaadah and say that the woman should refer to her previous cycle – if she used to have a known cycle – is the report narrated by al-Bukhaari (319) from ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her), that Faatimah bint Abi Hubaysh asked the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him): I suffer from istihaadah and I do not become pure; should I stop praying? He said: No, that is just a vein. But stop praying for the number of days that you used to menstruate, then do ghusl and pray.”Among the reports that speak of differentiating between types of blood is that narrated by al-Nasaa’i (215) and Abu Dawood (304) from Faatimah bint Abi Hubaysh, that she suffered from istihaadah and the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said to her: “If it is menstrual blood then it is black and recognizable, so refrain from praying, then when it is the other type, do wudoo’, for that is from a vein.” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Nasaa’i.
Among the reports which speak of the woman who has istihaadah stopping prayer for six or seven days if she did not have a regular cycle or she cannot distinguish between types of blood is the report narrated by al-Tirmidhi (128) and Abu Dawood (287) from Hamnah bint Jahsh who said: I used to suffer istihaadah, bleeding heavily. I came to the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) to ask him and tell him about that. I said: O Messenger of Allaah, I suffer istihaadah, bleeding heavily. What do you command me to do? It is keeping me from fasting and praying. He said: “That is only a kick from the shaytaan, so count your menses as six or seven days, which is something between you and Allaah, then wash yourself and when you see that you have become pure and you are certain of it, then pray for twenty-four or twenty-three days, and fast and pray. That will suffice you, so do what other women do with regard to their menses and purification.”
Al-Tirmidhi said: I asked Muhammad [al-Bukhaari] about this hadeeth and he said:  It is a hasan saheeh hadeeth. Ahmad ibn Hanbal said likewise, it is a hasan saheeh hadeeth.
And Allaah knows best.
Does wearing lipstick when fasting break the fast?
Q. What is the ruling on wearing lipstick during the day in Ramadaan? Does it break the fast? Please note that some lipsticks have a slight taste and some have no taste; some types of lipstick may be dry and some may be moist.
A. Praise be to Allaah.All kinds of preparations that are put on the outside of the body, whether they are absorbed through the skin or not, and whether they are for treatment, moisturizing, beautification or any other purpose, do not break the fast unless they are swallowed by the fasting person.The mere fact that it has a taste does not affect the fast so long as one does not swallow anything.Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked in Majmoo’al-Fataawa (15/260):What is the ruling on women using kohl and some cosmetics during the day in Ramadaan? Do these things break the fast or not?He replied:
Kohl does not break the fast of men or women according to the more correct of the two scholarly opinions, but it is better to use it at night if one is fasting.
The same applies to soaps, creams etc that are used to beautify the face and are applied to the surface of the skin, including henna, makeup and the like. There is nothing wrong with using them for one who is fasting, but makeup should not be used if it will cause harm to the face. And Allaah is the source of strength. End quote.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about the ruling on a fasting person using ointment to treat dryness of the lips.
He replied:
There is nothing wrong with a person using ointment to moisturise the lips or nose, or moistening them with water, or with a cloth and the like, but he should avoid anything that could reach the throat. But if anything reaches the throat without him intending it to, there is no sin on him, just as if he rinses his mouth and some water reaches his throat by accident, his fast is not invalidated by that. End quote.
Majmoo’ al-Fataawa (19/224).
Shaykh Ibn Jibreen (may Allaah preserve him) said in Fataawa ‘Ulama’ Balad al-Haraam (201):
There is nothing wrong with applying creams to the body when fasting if there is a need for that, because the cream only reaches the surface of the skin and does not enter the body. Even if it is absorbed by the pores it is not regarded as breaking the fast. End quote.
And Allaah knows best.
She saw a spot of blood – should she fast?
Q. When I went to the washroom to relieve myself I saw a spot of blood in the toilet, which made me worried and I was not sure whether I was menstruating, Should I pray and complete my fast or not?.
A. Praise be to Allaah.It seems that a drop of blood is not menses, so it does not mean that you should stop praying and fasting.Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about a woman who had a few spots of blood in Ramadaan, and this continued throughout the month, when she was fasting; is her fast valid?He replied: Yes, her fast is valid. These spots do not count as anything because they come from a vein. End quote.Fataawa al-Mar’ah al-Muslimah (1/137).He also said:
The general principle is that once a woman’s menses has ended and she has definitely seen the tuhr or white discharge that signals the end of menses or nifaas, anything that appears after that, whether it is a brownish or yellowish discharge or spots of blood or wetness, none of that is menses so she should not stop praying or fasting, and she is allowed to have intercourse with her husband, because it is not menses. End quote.
60 Su’aalan fi’l-Hayd.
SINS DURING FASTING
Effect of lying on fasting
Q. If a person who is fasting gets leave by telling his work that he is going for ‘Umrah, and this is not true, and he follows that by showing them a forged visa, what is the ruling on his fasting and prayer?.
A. Praise be to Allaah.If he takes leave based on his saying that he is going for ‘Umrah, and in fact he does not intend to go, then this is lying. If that results in him getting leave to which he is not entitled, then the salary that he gets for this period is haraam wealth and is not permissible for him.The one who does that has to repent to Allaah and go back to work.With regard to the effect that has on his fasting and prayer, they are valid, but it indicates that he is not doing them as Allaah enjoined. If he was really praying as Allaah has enjoined, then his prayer would be preventing him from doing evil deeds, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):“Verily, As‑Salaah (the prayer) prevents from Al‑Fahsha’ (i.e. great sins of every kind, unlawful sexual intercourse) and Al‑Munkar (i.e. disbelief, polytheism, and every kind of evil wicked deed)”[al-‘Ankaboot 29:45]
Undoubtedly sins such as lying, deceiving, swearing, insulting others etc detract from the reward of the one who is fasting, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does not give up false speech and acting upon it and ignorant conduct, Allaah has no need of his giving up his food and drink.”  Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 6057.
It was narrated by al-Tabaraani in al-Mu’jam al-Sagheer and al-Mu’jam al-Awsat with the wording: “Whoever does not give up obscene talk and lying, Allaah has no need of his giving up his food and drink.” Classed as hasan by al-Albaani inSaheeh al-Targheeb wa’l-Tarheeb.
False speech has also been interpreted as referring to lying. This points to the abhorrence of lying when fasting, and shows that he is exposing his fast to rejection and lack of acceptance.
It says in al-‘Awn al-Ma’bood: “If he does not give up” means, if he does not refrain from. “False speech” means lying. “Allaah has no need” – Ibn Battaal said: This does not mean that he is enjoined to stop fasting, rather what it means is a warning against false speech and the other things mentioned. … Ibn al-Muneer said: Rather it is an indication that it will not be accepted. Ibn al-‘Arabi said: What this hadeeth means is that he will not be rewarded for his fasting … This hadeeth was quoted as evidence to show that that these actions detract from the reward of fasting. End quote.
See also the answer to question no. 50063.
And Allaah knows best.
MISCELLANEOUS
Celebrating a child’s first fast
Q. In my country, the family celebrates the first day that their son or daughter fasts, by making food on that occasion and inviting the family to come and eat at the time of iftaar (breaking the fast). This event is called a “celebration of the first fast.” I would like to know the following:
  1. What is the Islamic ruling on celebrating this event; is it permissible to attend if I am invited, and to eat this food?
  2. What is your view on parties to celebrate the iftaar by inviting the people to come and have iftaar in a particular place?
  3. In most of the mosques, the Qur’an is completed on the night of the twenty-seventh and sweets are handed out in the mosque; what is the Islamic ruling on that?
May Allah reward you with good for your efforts for His sake.
A. Praise be to Allah. Firstly:There is nothing wrong, in sha Allah, with the family celebrating the first time a boy or girl fasts, so long as it is limited to this occasion only, and will not become something that is repeated. There is nothing wrong with expressing happiness when the child reaches the age to observe this act of worship, or to encourage him and help him understand that this is an important event in his life. It is also a blessing for which thanks should be given to Allah. Some of the scholars regard it as mustahabb to make food for every happy occasion, and they specifically mentioned making food when a child completes the Qur’an.See the answer to question no. 89705Secondly:If the reason for meeting to have iftaar is to spread love and harmony among those who gather, especially if they are relatives or if they are in a foreign land, and to encourage them to uphold ties with one another and show compassion towards one another, and to strengthen the bonds between Muslim families and their children, or that is done to help feed people and give iftaar to those who are fasting, and other valid purposes, then there is nothing wrong with it. In fact it is something praiseworthy that should be encouraged according to the purpose for which it is done, so long as it is not regarded as a Sunnah and is not taken by the participants as a regular “eid” other than the Eids prescribed in Islam, such that they gather on a particular day or in a particular manner, thinking that doing so has a particular virtue in Islamic terms.Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked:
I announce in one of the mosques that there will be an iftaar for everyone who wants to fast every Thursday. What is the ruling on that?
He replied: There is nothing wrong with making this announcement, because it is an announcement that is calling to good and the aim of it is not to buy or sell. What is haraam is to make announcements having to do with buying and selling, or renting and hiring, which are purposes for which the mosques were not built. As for calling people to good, feeding people and giving charity, there is nothing wrong with that.
With regard to its nature, and whether it is a gathering to perform a kind of worship, in fact they did not announce a communal fast; rather they announced iftaar only, so there is nothing wrong with that. And Allah knows best. End quote.
Thirdly:
The night of the twenty seventh of Ramadan is one of the odd-numbered nights among the last ten, on which Laylat al-Qadr may occur, according to the saheeh report narrated from the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him). But Laylat al-Qadr is not necessarily on this particular night according to the correct view; rather it may be on this night or on some other of the last ten nights, although this night is the most likely of those nights.
Based on that, it is not correct to be certain that it is always Laylat al-Qadr or to believe that. But if a person increases his prayers or strives harder in that, on the basis that it is the most likely of the last ten nights, there is nothing wrong with that, in sha Allah. As for singling it out for completing the Qur’an on that night, that is something that should not be done, lest it be believed for certain that it is Laylat al-Qadr. We know of no basis for doing that from the practice of the early generations.
With regard to distributing sweets on that night, we do not know of any basis for that. It seems that this is a kind of taking that night as an Eid. It is not prescribed to single out that night for that purpose; rather it is not prescribed to do that deliberately on that night or any of the other nights on the basis of its virtue. However, if the purpose of giving out these sweets is to be kind to small children and do something nice for them, it should not be done only on that night; rather if it is done every time there is a need for it, that is Islamically acceptable.
And Allah knows best.
Fasting on the day of doubt
Q. On the night of the thirtieth of Sha’ban we went out to sight the crescent, but the weather was cloudy so we could not see it. Should we fast the thirtieth day of Sha’baan, because it is a day concerning which there is some doubt?.
A. Praise be to Allaah.    This is what is called the “day of doubt”, because there is doubt concerning it – is it the last day of Sha’baan or the first day of Ramadaan? Fasting on this day is haraam because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said, “Fast when you see the new moon and break your fast when you see the new moon, and if you are not sure, then complete the number of Sha’baan as thirty days.” (Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 1909).‘Ammaar ibn Yaasir said: “Whoever fasts on the day concerning which there is doubt has disobeyed Abu’l-Qaasim (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him).” This was narrated by al-Tirmidhi and classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi, 553.Al-Haafiz ibn Hajar said: “It was understood from this that it is haraam to fast the day of doubt, because the Sahaabah would not say such a thing based on personal opinion, so a report such as this has the same status as a marfoo’ hadeeth.The scholars of the Standing Committee said concerning the day of doubt, “The Sunnah indicates that it is haraam to fast this day.” (Fataawa al-Lajnah, 10/117)Shaykh Muhammad ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said, after mentioning the difference of opinion concerning the ruling on fasting the day of doubt: “The most correct of these views is that it is haraam, but if it is proven to the ruler that it is obligatory to fast this day and he commands the people to fast, then no one should go against his opinion, and that means that no one should show that he is not fasting on that day, rather a person (who has a different opinion) may not fast, but he should do so secretly.”Al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 6/318.
Is fasting invalidated by a coma?
Q. A man fell into a coma whilst he was fasting. Is his fast invalidated?
A. Praise be to Allaah.The view of Imam al-Shaafa’i and Imam Ahmad is that if a person falls into a coma in Ramadaan, one of the following two scenarios must apply:1 – The coma lasts all day, i.e., he is unconscious from before dawn until after the sun sets. In this case his fast is not valid, and he must make up this day after Ramadaan.The evidence that his fast is not valid is that fasting means abstaining from things that invalidate the fast, with the intention of doing so, because Allaah says in the hadeeth qudsi that the fasting person “gives up his food, his drink and his desire for My sake.” (Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 1894; Muslim, 1151). So the abstention is connected to the prior intention on the part of the fasting person, and this cannot apply to one who is in a coma.The evidence that the fast must be made up later on is the verse in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):“and whoever is ill or on a journey, the same number [of days which one did not observe Sawm (fasts) must be made up] from other days”
[al-Baqarah 2:185]
2 – He is awake for part of the day, if only for a moment. In this case his fast is valid, whether he woke up at the beginning of the day, at the end or in the middle.
Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said, mentioning the different scholarly opinions on this matter:
The most correct view says that this is subject to the condition that he be awake for a part of the day.
i.e., the soundness of the unconscious person’s fasts depends on his being awake for part of the day.
The evidence for his fast being sound if he is awake for part of the day is that he has consciously abstained from things that break the fast in general.
See Haashiyat Ibn Qaasim ‘ala al-Rawd al-Muraaba’, 3/381
So to sum up, the answer is that if a man is unconscious for the entire day – i.e., from dawn until sunset – his fast is not valid, and he has to make up the fasts he missed.  If he was awake for part of the day, then his fast is valid. This is the view of al-Shaafa’i and Ahmad, and was the view favoured by Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him).
See al-Majmoo’, 6/346; al-Mughni, 4/344; al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 6/365
And Allaah knows best.
If a fasting person wakes up and finds food in his mouth
Q. I used to smoke but Alhamdulillah I gave up smoking. The problem is that whenever I feel that I desire smoking I chew a part of the cigarette to kill this desire, but it did not help. Anyway, I was chewing it in a night of Ramadaan and I fell asleep while it was in my mouth, I woke up after Fajr and washed my mouth. Did this invalidate my fasting that day?
A. Praise be to Allaah.If dawn breaks and there is something in the fasting person’s mouth and he spits it out, but he does not willingly swallow any of it, then his fast is valid. Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Minhaaj: If dawn breaks and there is some food in his mouth and he spits it out, his fast is valid. It says in Mughni al-Muhtaaj(2/161): Because if he put it in his mouth during the day it would not invalidate the fast, so it is more likely that this is the case if he put it in his mouth at night. But if he swallows any part of it deliberately, then he had broken his fast. End quote.Secondly:Doctors and researchers have warned against chewing tobacco, and they have stated that this is not regarded as a safe alternative to smoking; rather it is more dangerous and more harmful to the body than smoking in some ways, because it exposes the body to the risk of cancer more than smoking.What the one who has decided to give up smoking should do is to give it up completely and seek the help of Allaah with regard to that. It has been proven by experiments and experience that it is possible to stop smoking and that giving it up is easy. What matters is to repent sincerely and have strong willpower.We ask Allaah to help and guide us and you.
And Allaah knows best.
Fasting person inhaling steam
Q. What is the ruling on the fast of a person who takes a bath during the day in Ramadan using hot water, then the steam from that water is in his bathroom and he cannot help inhaling it? I had a wet dream during the day in Ramadan and I had no choice but to sprinkle hot water on my private parts in order to get the rest of the semen out.
A. Praise be to Allaah.Firstly:If a fasting person inhales the steam that results from him having a bath with hot water, this does not break the fast because it enters his body as he cannot help it and he does not do it deliberately.Thescholars of the Standing Committee were asked: I am one of the workers in the public desalination plant. When the month of Ramadan comes, we are fasting and we continue to work, and there is steam at the station where we are working, and we often inhale it. Does this invalidate our fast? Do we have to make up that day during which we inhaled the steam, whether it was an obligatory or voluntary fast? And do we have to offer charity for each day?They replied: If the matter is as described, then your fast is valid and you do not have to do anything. End quote.Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, 10/275.
Secondly:
You say: “I had no choice but to sprinkle hot water on my private parts in order to get the rest of the semen out”!
The answer is that making the semen come out in this manner comes under the heading of masturbation which is haraam, and this invalidates the fast and requires repentance as well as making up that day.
This action of yours is a transgression of the sacred limits of Allah. The fasting person will not be punished for having a wet dream, because that is beyond his control, but as for deliberately emitting the rest of the semen, this is a transgression of the fast and invalidates it.
We ask Allah to forgive us and you.
And Allah knows best.
I am the person who asked question no. 93821. You told me that I have to make up the fast for that day because that is counted as masturbation. Please note that I was entirely ignorant of the fact that this is counted as masturbation, because I did not feel any pleasure or desire when I did that.
Now I want to know about the issue of fasting six days of Shawwaal. When I received your answer, I had finished fasting six days of Shawwaal, and when I made up for the day mentioned, I did that on the 23rd of Shawwaal. This made me conclude that my fasting of the six days was not valid, because I had not completed the fast of Ramadaan, so I had to repeat the six days of Shawwaal after making up that day. Tomorrow is the 24th of Shawwaal, i.e., I have to repeat the six days tomorrow, straight away, in order to complete the six days. My question now is, with regard to the six days that I already fasted, will they at least be regarded as a naafil fast for me? Or are they not valid at all?
Answer:
Praise be to Allaah.
If your use of hot water to bring out the rest of the maniy that was emitted as the result of an erotic dream was not accompanied by feelings of pleasure or desire, then your fast is valid, because the emission of maniy without pleasure does not invalidate the fast. Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: If maniy is emitted without desire, then his fast is still valid and he does not have to make it up. End quote from Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (19/238).
He also said: If maniy is emitted without desire then it does not necessitate ghusl. End quote from al-Sharh al-Kaafi.
Based on that, your fast on that day of Ramadaan was valid, and you do not have to make it up. As for your making it up on the basis of the previous fatwa, that will be counted as a naafil fast for you, in sha Allaah, and your fasting of the six days of Shawwaal that you did after fasting Ramadaan is complete, praise be to Allaah, and you do not need to repeat them.
And Allaah knows best.
If the fasting person detects the taste of blood in his throat
Q. If we detect the taste of blood in out throats and spit out a little of it when fasting, do we have to make up the fast?.
A. Praise be to Allaah.If the fasting person detects the taste of blood in his throat, that does not affect him even if he swallows it, but if it comes up to the mouth then he swallows it, he breaks his fast.The same is said concerning phlegm, sputum and everything that may appear in the throat.Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: I should point out with regard to the issue of sputum and phlegm, because some fasting people make it too hard for themselves, and if they notice that in the deepest part of their throats, they try very hard to expel it, and this is a mistake, because phlegm and sputum do not spoil a person’s fast unless they reach his mouth then he swallows them, in which case it breaks the fast according to some scholars, but according to others that does not break the fasteither.But that which is in his throat and goes down into his stomach does not break his fast, even if he feels it, so he should not tire himself out by trying to expel that which is in his throat of these things. End quote from Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (19/356).
If water reaches his throat because of rinsing his nose when fasting
Q. Does my fast break if water runs down the back of my throat when i clear my nose in wudoo?.
A. Praise be to Allaah.Firstly:The fasting person is forbidden to go to extremes in rinsing his nose, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said to Laqeet ibn Sabirah (may Allaah be pleased with him): “Do wudoo’ well, make the water run in between your fingers and toes, and go to extremes in rinsing the nose, unless you are fasting.” Narrated by Abu Dawood (142) and al-Tirmidhi (788); classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi.This hadeeth indicates that one should avoid going to extremes in rinsing the nose when fasting, so that the water will not inadvertently enter the fasting person’s body.Secondly:If the fasting person rinses his mouth or nose and some of the water goes down into his throat without him intending it to, that does not break the fast, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And there is no sin on you concerning that in which you made a mistake, except in regard to what your hearts deliberately intend”
[al-Ahzaab 33:5]
This person did not deliberately intend to do that which invalidates the fast, so his fast is still valid.
See al-Sharh al-Mumti’ (6/240, 246).
See also question no. 40698.
And Allaah knows best.
The true time of Fajr
Q. What are the ways by which I can distinguish the true Fajr time?
I do my best in the morning to know the real time of Fajr, in order to know the right time to pray and start fasting. I do this for me and my friends. As I live in China. Muslims here depend on the internet to know the times of different prayers. But it is not accurate, and thus they pray Fajr before its actual time. Will I be considered sinful if I could not be very accurate in estimating the right time for praying (I consider it when the darkness disappears and light starts to show)?
A. Praise be to Allaah.Firstly:We ask Allah to reward you with the best of rewards for your eagerness to learn the truth and do the right thing in your worship. We ask Allah, may He be exalted, to guide you and increase you by His grace in your love for knowledge and your keenness to learn. It should be noted that there are two dawns, the false dawn (al-fajr al-kaadhib), which does not signal the beginning of the time for Fajr prayer or the time when the one who wants to fast should refrain from food, drink and intercourse; and the true dawn (al-fajr al-saadiq), which is when the time for Fajr prayer begins and the time when the one who wants to fast should refrain from food, drink and intercourse. This is what is referred to in the verse in which Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning): “and eat and drink until the white thread (light) of dawn appears to you distinct from the black thread (darkness of night)” [al-Baqarah 2:187].The Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) explained the difference between them in many hadeeths, some of which speak of the difference between them in terms of characteristics, and others speak of the difference between them in terms of rulings; and some hadeeths mention both characteristics and rulings.You can see these hadeeths in the answer to question no. 26763The difference between the two dawns also appears clearly in the words of the Sahaabah and Taabi‘een and the imams who came after them.
Ibn Katheer (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
‘Abd al-Razzaaq said: Ibn Jurayj told us that ‘Ata’ said: I heard Ibn ‘Abbaas say: There are two dawns: as for that which appears vertically in the sky, it does not make anything halaal or haraam; rather the dawn that appears along the mountaintops is that which makes it haraam to drink.
‘Ata’ said: If it appears vertically in the sky, that does not make it haraam to drink for fasting or praying, and it does not affect Hajj. But if it spreads along the mountaintops, it becomes haraam to drink for one who is fasting, and it means that Hajj has been missed.
This is a saheeh isnaad going back to Ibn ‘Abbaas and ‘Ata’. Something similar was also narrated from more than one of the salaf (may Allah have mercy on them).
Tafseer Ibn Katheer, 1/516
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
To sum up, the time of dawn refers to the appearance of the second dawn according to consensus. That is indicated by the reports of the times of prayer. It is the white line that appears along the horizon; it is called the true dawn (al-fajr al-saadiq).
As for the first dawn, it is the white line that appears vertically and not horizontally. It is not connected to any ruling and it is called the false dawn (al-fajr al-kaadhib).
Al-Mughni, 1/232
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
The scholars stated that there are three differences between it (the false dawn) and the second (dawn):
1.     The first dawn is vertical and not horizontal, i.e., it extends from east to west (across the arc of the sky) whereas the second dawn extends from north to south (across the horizon).
2.     The first dawn turns dark, i.e., this light appears for a short while, then it goes dark, whereas the second dawn does not turn dark, rather it increases in light and grows brighter.
3.     The second dawn extends along the horizon with no darkness between it and the horizon, whereas the first dawn is separate from the horizon and there is darkness between it and the horizon.
Are any rulings connected to the first dawn? No shar‘i rulings whatsoever are connected to it, such as stopping eating when you want to fast, or the time for Fajr prayer beginning. The rulings are connected to the second dawn. End quote.
Al-Sharh al-Mumti‘, 2/107, 108
Secondly:
With regard to the available prayer timetables, they are not a reliable source for finding out the time of Fajr prayer. The fact that these timetables are incorrect has been proven.
What you should do is not rely on the timetables to find out the time of Fajr prayer. You have to look for the correct time on the basis of what we have mentioned of the differences between the false dawn and the true dawn. If you cannot look at the sky every day, then you can delay it after the time mentioned in the timetable, to be on the safe side. In our country this time differs from one city to another and from one season to another. So you can delay it half an hour, for example, to pray Fajr, but to be on the safe side you should stop eating and drinking before that.
You can draw up a correct timetable to be used by those who come after you, after working out the time of the true dawn for a whole year, at various times. Perhaps you will attain the reward of correcting the Muslims’ acts of worship.
Based on that, if possible you can work out the time of Fajr yourselves and follow that in prayer and fasting. If that is not possible, then you should not pray until you think it most likely that the time for the prayer has begun.
With regard to fasting, you can eat or drink until you are certain that dawn has broken, because Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning): “and eat and drink until the white thread (light) of dawn appears to you distinct from the black thread (darkness of night)” [al-Baqarah 2:187].
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
So long as he is not certain that dawn has broken, he may eat even if he is not sure, until he is certain. End quote.
Fataawa al-Siyaam, p. 299
And Allah knows best.

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